don robert:  Epifanio M. Almeda wrote:

Jesus death is not automatically applied to man’s sins, not only that of Adam and Eve. Every man will die for his own sin as Adam and Eve died for theirs.

Ezekiel 18:20 The soul who sins shall die. The son shall not bear the guilt of the father, nor the father bear the guilt of the son. The righteousness of the righteous shall be upon himself, and the wickedness of the wicked shall be upon himself.

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Mang Epi, whatever sins man has committed before Jesus came, all of these came from the first sin Adam and Eve made. So, in any form of sin, all of these are the same (before Jesus arrived), right?

Your comment on “every man dies for his sin”, this is applicable only after Jesus’ resurrection, (as we have already been saved from the original sin)? We needed to be saved, first, from the original sin before we can go back to God. Thus, all men, regardless if they believed God or not, have been saved by JC from the original sin, right?

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Epifanio M. Almeda wrote:

Jesus’ dying in man’s behalf practically redeemed man of his sin. But the application for each man is not automatic. Mankind is to be saved by batch so to speak. Some in this age while others are in the ages to follow.

Jesus’ payment for a particular man’s sin is applied only when God grants that man repentance. It is not in man’s power to realize his sin and repent. It takes God’s power to make him realize and repent. Repentance is a favor that God grants.

Acts 11:18 When they heard these things they became silent; and they glorified God, saying, “Then God has also granted to the Gentiles repentance to life.”

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Your comment on “salvation” by “batches”, I know you’ve talked about this in another thread. Can you elaborate on them again?

EMA:  don robert wrote:

Mang Epi, whatever sins man has committed before Jesus came, all of these came from the first sin Adam and Eve made. So, in any form of sin, all of these are the same (before Jesus arrived), right?

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What I read in the bible is that sin is either committed in ignorance or willfully.  Sin by ignorance is that which is committed by one who has no Holy Spirit in him. This sin is washed out when Christ’s sacrifice is applied in his stead at baptism.

Hebrews 9:7 and for the people’s sins committed in ignorance…

The willfully committed sin is one made by a person who has been indwelt by the Holy Spirit and he sins when he wrongfully allows his “old man” to prevail over the lead of the Holy Spirit when confronted by a trying situation.  This kind of sin Jesus Christ in heaven pleads to God, as man’s advocate (lawyer), for God to forgive, again by the same application of the payment Christ already made.

1 John 2:1 My little children, these things I write to you, so that you may not sin. And if anyone sins, we have an Advocate with the Father, Jesus Christ the righteous.

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don robert wrote:

Your comment on “every man dies for his sin”, this is applicable only after Jesus’ resurrection, (as we have already been saved from the original sin)? We needed to be saved, first, from the original sin before we can go back to God. Thus, all men, regardless if they believed God or not, have been saved by JC from the original sin, right?

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The rule “every man dies for his sin” applies to sin committed in ignorance or willfully (as explained above).

Not “if they believed God or not”.  Man will have his death penalty removed only when Christ’s sacrifice is applied in his case. And this happens only when God enables man to believe God when he starts working on him in this age.

And yes, Christ’s death practically has paid for the sins man has committed in ignorance which makes possible man’s reconciliation with God.  But to say that a non-God believer is already sin free with Christ’s death is not supported by the bible.

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